A private owner of a house rents his house to another private person. Does the owner has to pay Itbis on the rent he gets from his tenant? When he does he, has he to make monthly ITBIS declarations I suppose ? Does it matter it are short or long rentals and /or the house is furnished or not?
I come to this question because a property manager told me that he has to deduct 16 % Itbis on the
rent for which he is intermediating. This was a surprise to me! I am from Europe and here the rent is exempted from VAT when the owner is a private person and not acting as a regular business. Only the commission that the agency gets is subject to VAT and charged by the agency to the owner.
I have been looking in the Dominican Itbis regulations
http://www.dgii.gov.do/asistencia/Pr...recuentes.aspx and found that "¿Qué está exento del ITBIS?" Servicios de: Alquiler de viviendas"
In the same ITBIS law you can find as "agravado" "the renting of condos and villas and hotel services".
I think the Itbis application depends on the circumstances. When it is a rental by a pro together with other additional services as a whole, it can be subjected to Itbis. When it is a rental of a regular house whitout extra services it can be exempted.
Perhaps this makes the whole thing more clear?
I am asking this question because the ITBIS is a expensive tax with high fines and intrests when you do not comply with it correctly!
Thank You!