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  #1  
Old 04-28-2005, 03:47 PM
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nancybelle Level 1 (10)
Default collective nouns? plural/singular verbs

Hi, y'all, I have a question for the grammar gurus. If you are referring to all the family--as in "toda la familia"--should the verb be singular or plural? Toda la familia es o toda la familia son. . .
Gracias,
Nancy Bell
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  #2  
Old 04-28-2005, 03:56 PM
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juancarlos Level 1 (10)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by nancybelle
Hi, y'all, I have a question for the grammar gurus. If you are referring to all the family--as in "toda la familia"--should the verb be singular or plural? Toda la familia es o toda la familia son. . .
Gracias,
Nancy Bell
Singular. Toda la familia es... Of course, I've heard people say: Toda la familia son personas inteligentes. That's the way people talk sometimes. But it's not right and does not sound right.
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  #3  
Old 04-28-2005, 04:00 PM
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Lesley D Level 2 (64)
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Nancybelle,

The grammatically correct usage is "singular".

There are many examples:

"la gente" es (but in English "people" are)

Here is another common mistake with the same concept:

La mayoría de las personas "piensa" or "piensan".

La concordancia es con "la mayoría" [de las personas] piensa. BUT you will see "piensan". Common error in newspapers, when speaking etc.


LDG.

Quote:
Originally Posted by nancybelle
Hi, y'all, I have a question for the grammar gurus. If you are referring to all the family--as in "toda la familia"--should the verb be singular or plural? Toda la familia es o toda la familia son. . .
Gracias,
Nancy Bell

Last edited by Lesley D; 04-28-2005 at 04:29 PM.
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  #4  
Old 04-28-2005, 05:24 PM
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Chris_NJ Level 1 (10)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Lesley D
"la gente" es (but in English "people" are)
So "gente" is always singular? I have been wondering about this.
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  #5  
Old 04-28-2005, 05:26 PM
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stewart Level 1 (10)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris_NJ
So "gente" is always singular? I have been wondering about this.
Affirmative
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  #6  
Old 04-28-2005, 08:19 PM
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Lesley D Level 2 (64)
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Chris_NJ,

Once the noun is singular such as "la gente" the verb could only be "singular".


LDG.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris_NJ
So "gente" is always singular? I have been wondering about this.
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  #7  
Old 04-28-2005, 08:21 PM
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Chris_NJ Level 1 (10)
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What I meant to ask if it is always singular as in "la gente" and never "las gentes."
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  #8  
Old 04-28-2005, 08:31 PM
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Lesley D Level 2 (64)
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Chris_NJ,

The usage is possible. In my opinion limited. I come across "las gentes" in literature but can't recall too often in conversation. May be others will comment.

LDG.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris_NJ
What I meant to ask if it is always singular as in "la gente" and never "las gentes."
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  #9  
Old 04-28-2005, 09:28 PM
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mofi Level 1 (10)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Lesley D
Chris_NJ,

The usage is possible. In my opinion limited. I come across "las gentes" in literature but can't recall too often in conversation. May be others will comment.

LDG.
I don't think i have ever heard anyone say "las gentes" well speaking....Its kind of like saying "the peoples" in english, which doesn't get said often.
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  #10  
Old 04-28-2005, 09:40 PM
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nancybelle Level 1 (10)
Default Grammar query

Thanks for your help. I think I am trying to learn too much too quickly and all the rules are running together. I appreciate your help.
Nancy Bell
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